Avestan and Vedic are obviously twin languages. Notice the similarity from Avesta to Sanskrit in the sample below:

 

tem amavantem yazatem
surem damohu seviytem
mithrem yazai zaothrabyo

'Mithra that strong mighty angel, most beneficent to all creatures, I will worship with libations'.

 

Becomes when rendered word for word in Sanskrit:

tam amavantam yajatam
yuram dhamasu yavistham
mitram yajai hotrabhyah

 

They may have a common root, somewhere. What is generally considered to be that common language? Does it exist in traces or has it become an isolate?

 

It is well known that the 'S' in Vedic is transferred as 'H' in Avestan. Examples:

Asura > Ahura

Saraswati > Harahwati

etc, etc

 

It would seem to me, that the conversion from S to H is more of a logical directional transfer than from H to S, because, 'Sah' to 'Ha' is easily followed, than v.v.

 

If that be the case, will it not be logical to assume that their 'parent' language may have been more akin to Vedic than Avestan; in other words, is Avestan later than Vedic?

 

Any thoughts on this from the experts?

 

Ram