----- Original Message -----
From: "Gudmund Areskoug" <fta@...>
>
> Here we have another twist among the bends: Typically I am the one who
> comes up with the swedish terminology, often making them brand-oriented
> to give each customer their own special flavor in the market, but
> stickin to a general teminology where it makes sense, so the end user
> won't get flummoxed each time he/she changes product supplier. Well, in
> these cases _I_ am the source, right? My customer should ask _my_
> approval, before they let any other translator, or their headquarters in
> the respective country use TM content or terminology containing _my_
> work, right? Just theorizing, but I think it puts light on where the
> limits are.

Perhaps my outlook is American, because it seems that many of the
translators I've talked to have a similar opinion to Gudmund's. But my
experience says that if someone employs you to produce an item, the item
belongs to them, not to you.

I'll use as an example my former work as a tech writer. When a company
contracted me to write a user's guide or other piece of work, the resulting
documents belonged to them, not to me. I had no claim for who they asked to
work on it in the future, and I'm sure that many pieces I wrote were later
edited and updated by other writers without my knowledge or consent. I
wouldn't expect to have to give it. I was hired to produce something for a
client. The item I produced belonged to them, and was therefore theirs to do
with as they chose.