Search the web
Sign In
New User? Sign Up
harmonicanalysis · Harmonic Analysis
? Already a member? Sign in to Yahoo!

Yahoo! Groups Tips

Did you know...
Want your group to be featured on the Yahoo! Groups website? Add a group photo to Flickr.

Best of Y! Groups

   Check them out and nominate your group.
Having problems with message search? Fill out this form to ensure your group is one of the first to be migrated to the new message search system.

Messages

  Messages Help
Advanced
L^/infinity functions   Message List  
Reply | Forward Message #364 of 455 |
Re: L^/infinity functions (counter examples)

Hi Gowri;

I think the best you can do in approximating such function is Lusin's
Theorem, which is sometimes very useful. Anyways, here I provide a
counter example to your result (which I hope is right).

There exists a sequence {En} of disjoint measurable sets on R such
that
(i) the measure of En is less than 2^n
(ii)there exists a countable basis {In} of the topology of R then En
intersects In in a set of positive measure for every n
(note that you use this construction to solve exercise 8 of Rudin
Chapter 2)

Now consider the function f=sigma{(1/2)^n * (Characteristic function
of En)/ (measure of En)}. Then since the En are disjoint f converges
everywhere. It is easy to see that the L1 norm of f is finite, but its
integral on any interval of R is infinite. This last fact proves that
even if you change f on a set of measure 0, it will remain
discontinuous.

But you tell me: "f may not be in L^infinity". Then take the function
g=exp{-f} then g is bounded and is continuous if and only if f is
continuous (here we needed the fact that f is never infinite, which
explains my choice of this particular f rather than more easier
examples satisfying almost the same properties as f).

g is in L^infinity (bounded). If I can change g on a set of measure 0
to make it continuous then the same is true for f, which is a
contradiction.

Please check the above counter example and keep me in touch if
something is wrong.
Best Regards;
Zaher Hani




Sat Mar 3, 2007 9:25 pm

zaher_hani
Offline Offline
Send Email Send Email

Forward
Message #364 of 455 |
Expand Messages Author Sort by Date

Hello, I need a proof of the following fact: L^/infinity functions in R can be made continuous by changing the values of functions on a set of measure zero....
gnavada
Offline Send Email
Feb 13, 2007
5:15 pm

What you want is not true. The fact you mean is that you can do it with a set of arbitrary small measure....
Maria Roginskaya
maria@...
Send Email
Feb 13, 2007
5:22 pm

Quoting gnavada <gnavada@...>: It's false....
wilson@...
obscureveryo...
Offline Send Email
Feb 13, 2007
6:11 pm

Hai, I think that is not true in general. Particular you can visualise this by taking a step function on a bounded interval. bye.... wilson@... wrote:...
venku naidu
venku_uoh
Offline Send Email
Feb 14, 2007
4:29 am

Hi Thanks. I got similar mails from others saying it is not true. I havnt checked a counterexample yet, but I'll do it. In page 192 of Rudin's "Real and...
Gowri Navada
gnavada
Offline Send Email
Feb 14, 2007
3:57 pm

Hi Gowri, Look at equation (5) on pg. 192. We assumed, that \phi(f) is not zero and that \beta(y) is in L^\infinity. On the other hand, since the map f \to f_y...
Bela A. Frigyik
frigyik
Offline Send Email
Feb 14, 2007
7:35 pm

Hi Gowri; I think the best you can do in approximating such function is Lusin's Theorem, which is sometimes very useful. Anyways, here I provide a counter...
zaher_hani
Offline Send Email
Mar 4, 2007
3:17 am
Advanced

Copyright © 2009 Yahoo! Inc. All rights reserved.
Privacy Policy - Terms of Service - Guidelines - Help